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Posted at 1:56 PM ET, 01/11/2011

Income inequality and the poor

By Ezra Klein

There might be questions about the relationship between income inequality and median incomes, but according to Lane Kenworthy, there's no real question about the relationship between income inequality and low-end incomes: There isn't one.

If we look across the rich nations, it turns out that there is no relationship between changes in income inequality and changes in the absolute incomes of low-end households. The reason is that income growth for poor households has come almost entirely via increases in net government transfers, and the degree to which governments have increased transfers seems to have been unaffected by changes in income inequality. (For more detail, see my piece in the November-December issue of Challenge.)

In some countries with little or no rise in income inequality, such as Sweden, government transfers increased and so did the incomes of poor households. In others, such as Germany, transfers and the incomes of low-end households did not increase.

Among nations with sharp increases in top-heavy inequality, we observe a similar disjunction. Here the U.S. and the U.K. offer an especially revealing contrast. The top 1%’s income share soared in both countries, and through the mid-1990s poor households made little progress, as the following chart shows. But over the next decade low-end American households advanced only slightly, whereas their British counterparts experienced sizable gains.

By Ezra Klein  | January 11, 2011; 1:56 PM ET
Categories:  Inequality  
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Comments

What's meant by "Government transfers"?

Posted by: CRagg1 | January 11, 2011 5:06 PM | Report abuse

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